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I’m thinking about Prop 8 in California.
Now, first the California Supreme Court ruled that the existing laws at that time which outlawed gay marriage were unconstitional. So that made those laws void, and thus gay marriage became legal. Then the opponents of gay marriage were able to get a referendum passed changing the law to outlaw gay marriage once again. However….. (and someone please correct me if I’m wrong.) but isn’t that proposition to change the law as opposed to changing the constitution? So, even if the law is changed, the constitution is still the same. So, then regardless of how many people voted yes, wouldn’t it still be unconstitutional?
And if the California Supreme Court were to rule in favor of the new law, might that not also become a blessing in disguise?....If, and only if….. the case were then brought to the U.S. Supreme court, and then the law was nullified as being in violation of the U.S. Constitution. Because, the federal government has soverignity over the state government, and then wouldn’t that make gay marriage legal everywhere in the United States?
I also wonder if there would be a grandfather clause for the people who got married while it was legal?
ratshaverights okay!
I think everyone should be able to marry no matter there sexuall oriantaion!!!!
It’s beyond the time when the world realizes that Marriage, is about LOVE. Pure and simple.
And gay love, is just as real as straight.
Love is love, undefinable, wonderful, and a human RIGHT.





